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False Anointed Ones at the End Time: Difference between revisions

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“This generation” is used frequently in Matthew’s gospel for Jesus’ contemporaries, especially in a context of God’s impending judgment: see Matt. 11:16; Matt. 12:39, 41–42, 45; Matt. 16:4; Matt. 17:17 and especially Matt. 23:36 where God’s judgment on “this generation” leads up to Jesus’ first prediction of the devastation of the temple in Matt. 23:38.
“This generation” is used frequently in Matthew’s gospel for Jesus’ contemporaries, especially in a context of God’s impending judgment: see Matt. 11:16; Matt. 12:39, 41–42, 45; Matt. 16:4; Matt. 17:17 and especially Matt. 23:36 where God’s judgment on “this generation” leads up to Jesus’ first prediction of the devastation of the temple in Matt. 23:38.


It may safely be concluded that if it had not been for the embarrassment caused by supposing that Jesus was here talking about his Parousia (future return), no one would have thought of suggesting any other meaning for “this generation,” such as “the Jewish race” or “human beings in general” or “all the generations of Judaism that reject him” or even “this kind” (meaning scribes, Pharisees and Sadducees).  Such broad senses, even if they were textually possible, would offer no help in response to the disciples’ question “When?”  
It may safely be concluded that if it had not been for the embarrassment caused by supposing that Jesus was here talking about his future return, no one would have thought of suggesting any other meaning for “this generation,” such as “the Jewish race” or “human beings in general” or “all the generations of Judaism that reject him” or even “this kind” (meaning scribes, Pharisees and Sadducees).  Such broad senses, even if they were textually possible, would offer no help in response to the disciples’ question “When?”  


This reference is clearly to the destruction of the temple, which did, as a matter of fact, take place some 40 years later while many of Jesus’ contemporaries must have been still alive.  Therefore, all interpretations that this is talking about the end-time must be laid to rest. Matthew 24:34 refers to the same time-scale as Matt. 16:28 (which was also concerned with the fulfillment of Daniel 7:13–14): “some of those standing here will certainly not taste death before …” (see also Matt. 10:23, with the same Daniel reference: “you will not go through all the towns of Israel before …”).  We can therefore also conclude that all of the portion of Matthew 24 preceding verse 34 also relates to Jesus contemporaries.<ref>R. T. France, The Gospel of Matthew, The New International Commentary on the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publication Co., 2007), 930.</ref>
This reference is clearly to the destruction of the temple, which did, as a matter of fact, take place some 40 years later while many of Jesus’ contemporaries must have been still alive.  Therefore, all interpretations that this is talking about the end-time must be laid to rest. Matthew 24:34 refers to the same time-scale as Matt. 16:28 (which was also concerned with the fulfillment of Daniel 7:13–14): “some of those standing here will certainly not taste death before …” (see also Matt. 10:23, with the same Daniel reference: “you will not go through all the towns of Israel before …”).  We can therefore also conclude that all of the portion of Matthew 24 preceding verse 34 also relates to Jesus contemporaries.<ref>R. T. France, The Gospel of Matthew, The New International Commentary on the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publication Co., 2007), 930.</ref>
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Various proposals have been made, including the church, the Jewish race, humanity as a whole, or the last generation before the end. None of these is convincing.  
Various proposals have been made, including the church, the Jewish race, humanity as a whole, or the last generation before the end. None of these is convincing.  


Jesus is not speaking of his ultimate return.  He is referring to the time between his resurrection and the destruction of the Temple in 70 A.D.
'''Jesus is not speaking of his ultimate return.  He is referring to the time between his resurrection and the destruction of the Temple in 70 A.D.'''


==Does "False Christs" mean "False Anointed Teachers"?==
==Does "False Christs" mean "False Anointed Teachers"?==
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:''Now, '''anointed one, is, “one with a message.”''' And the only way the message can be brought out is by one that’s anointed, and that would be a prophet, anointed, '''“there shall rise false, anointed teachers.”''' A prophet teaches what his message is. Anointed teachers, but '''anointed people with false teaching.''' Anointed ones, “Christs,” plural; “prophets,” plural. And if there is such a thing as a—a Christ, singular, then these would have to be “anointed ones,” that their prophecy of what they were teaching would be the difference, because they are anointed ones, anointed.<ref>William Branham, 65-0725M - The Anointed Ones At The End Time, para. 23-25</ref>
:''Now, '''anointed one, is, “one with a message.”''' And the only way the message can be brought out is by one that’s anointed, and that would be a prophet, anointed, '''“there shall rise false, anointed teachers.”''' A prophet teaches what his message is. Anointed teachers, but '''anointed people with false teaching.''' Anointed ones, “Christs,” plural; “prophets,” plural. And if there is such a thing as a—a Christ, singular, then these would have to be “anointed ones,” that their prophecy of what they were teaching would be the difference, because they are anointed ones, anointed.<ref>William Branham, 65-0725M - The Anointed Ones At The End Time, para. 23-25</ref>


William Branham takes the Greek word ψευδόχριστος which means “false messiah” and twists its meaning to "false anointed teacher."  But that is not what the text says.  Jesus could have said "false anointed teacher" but he didn't.  The Greek word "χριστός" or "Christ" is repeatedly translated in the Septuagint version (the Greek translation of the Old Testament that Jesus and the New Testament writers quoted from) as "Messiah".  This is evident from the following passages:
William Branham takes the Greek word ψευδόχριστος which means “false messiah” and twists its meaning to "false anointed teacher."  But that is not what the text says.  Jesus could have said "false anointed teacher" but he didn't.  The Greek word "χριστός" or "Christ" is how the New Testament referred to the "Messiah".  This is evident from the following passages:


:''The first thing Andrew did was to find his brother Simon and tell him, “We have found '''the Messiah” (that is, the Christ)'''.<ref>The New International Version (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2011), Jn 1:41.</ref>
:''The first thing Andrew did was to find his brother Simon and tell him, “We have found '''the Messiah” (that is, the Christ)'''.<ref>The New International Version (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2011), Jn 1:41.</ref>
 
:''The woman said, “I know that '''Messiah” (called Christ''') “is coming. When he comes, he will explain everything to us.” <ref>The New International Version (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2011), Jn 4:25.</ref>''
:''The woman said, “I know that '''Messiah” (called Christ''') “is coming. When he comes, he will explain everything to us.” <ref>The New International Version (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2011), Jn 4:25.</ref>


A much better translation than "false anointed teachers" is "false Messiahs"  
A much better translation than "false anointed teachers" is "false Messiahs"