Question 24 (ABM) - Grounds for Divorce according to William Branham: Difference between revisions

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    It is clear from Bro. Branham’s teaching on this issue that he completely misses the point of Jesus statement when he states:
    It is clear from Bro. Branham’s teaching on this issue that he completely misses the point of Jesus statement when he states:


    :''See, she has got a living husband, so no man can marry her. Care what she does and who she is, she's got a living husband, there is no grounds for her at all. But, it's not, for him. "Causes her," not him. Get it? You have to make the Word run in continuity. See, nothing saying he couldn't, but she can't. See, "causes her," not him. That's exactly what the Bible says, "causes her." It is not stated against him to remarry, but "her." Why? Christ in the type.''
    :''See, she has got a living husband, so no man can marry her. Care what she does and who she is, she's got a living husband, there is no grounds for her at all. But, it's not, for him. "Causes her," not him. Get it? You have to make the Word run in continuity. See, nothing saying he couldn't, but she can't. See, "causes her," not him. That's exactly what the Bible says, "causes her." It is not stated against him to remarry, but "her." Why? Christ in the type.'' <ref>MARRIAGE.AND.DIVORCE_  JEFF.IN  65-0221M</ref>
    :::MARRIAGE.AND.DIVORCE_  JEFF.IN V-3 N-13  SUNDAY_ 65-0221M


    Bro. Branham’s statement here completely ignores Mark 10:11 and Luke 16:18.  It also assumes that Matthew’s lack of speaking to the woman somehow allows a man to remarry and a woman not to remarry.  
    Bro. Branham’s statement here completely ignores Mark 10:11 and Luke 16:18.  It also assumes that Matthew’s lack of speaking to the woman somehow allows a man to remarry and a woman not to remarry.  
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    :''Jesus said in Matthew 19:9, "Whosoever putteth away his wife and marries another, except it be for the cause of fornications, commits adultery." The difference between fornications and adultery, the word could be applied either way. But to make it clear what he was talking of there, that--a woman that's unmarried cannot commit adultery, because she has no husband to commit adultery against. It's uncleanliness for her. She has to confess that to her husband before they are married if she's did that. If not and her husband finds it out later, he has a right to put her away, because she took a false vow. For the Bible said, "Be it well..." or ritual says. "Be it well known to you (I have it in mine) if any couples are joined otherwise than God's Word does allow, their marriage is not lawful. I will require and will charge you both as you'll surely answer in the day of judgment when the secrets of all hearts shall be disclosed, if either of you know any impediment why you should not be lawful joined together, do you now confess it." There you are. See?''
    :''Jesus said in Matthew 19:9, "Whosoever putteth away his wife and marries another, except it be for the cause of fornications, commits adultery." The difference between fornications and adultery, the word could be applied either way. But to make it clear what he was talking of there, that--a woman that's unmarried cannot commit adultery, because she has no husband to commit adultery against. It's uncleanliness for her. She has to confess that to her husband before they are married if she's did that. If not and her husband finds it out later, he has a right to put her away, because she took a false vow. For the Bible said, "Be it well..." or ritual says. "Be it well known to you (I have it in mine) if any couples are joined otherwise than God's Word does allow, their marriage is not lawful. I will require and will charge you both as you'll surely answer in the day of judgment when the secrets of all hearts shall be disclosed, if either of you know any impediment why you should not be lawful joined together, do you now confess it." There you are. See?''


    :''So fornication is what a girl, when she lives unclean, that's fornication, 'cause she has no husband. But when she's married, and then when she lives like that, she commits adultery against her husband.''        
    :''So fornication is what a girl, when she lives unclean, that's fornication, 'cause she has no husband. But when she's married, and then when she lives like that, she commits adultery against her husband.''<ref>QUESTIONS.AND.ANSWERS 59-0628E</ref>
    :::QUESTIONS.AND.ANSWERS_  JEFF.IN  COD  SUNDAY_  59-0628E


    Bro. Branham thinks that the KJV interpretation of the word porneia is something that refers to activity prior to marriage, which it is not.  The NIV interprets it as “except for marital unfaithfulness”; the GNT as “other than her unfaithfulness”; and the Amplified as “except on the grounds of unfaithfulness”.  His interpretation does not stand up to scrutiny if you look at the true meaning of the Greek.
    Bro. Branham thinks that the KJV interpretation of the word porneia is something that refers to activity prior to marriage, which it is not.  The NIV interprets it as “except for marital unfaithfulness”; the GNT as “other than her unfaithfulness”; and the Amplified as “except on the grounds of unfaithfulness”.  His interpretation does not stand up to scrutiny if you look at the true meaning of the Greek.
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    This passage is Matthew’s account of the incident told in Mark 10:1-12.  As in Matthew 5:32, but unlike the passage in Mark, Matthew’s account contains an exception.  The wording in the Greek is similar here and again uses the Greek word “porneia”.   
    This passage is Matthew’s account of the incident told in Mark 10:1-12.  As in Matthew 5:32, but unlike the passage in Mark, Matthew’s account contains an exception.  The wording in the Greek is similar here and again uses the Greek word “porneia”.   
    Clearly Jesus allows divorce where there has been illicit sexual activity. But is he also allowing remarriage for the partner who has not committed adultery, where there has been divorce for adultery?   
    Clearly Jesus allows divorce where there has been illicit sexual activity. But is he also allowing remarriage for the partner who has not committed adultery, where there has been divorce for adultery?