The Reason John Wept: Difference between revisions

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:''I believe '''he was weeping for joy''' because that he had seen the whole plan of redemption was wrote in this Book here. It wasn't because there wasn't nobody worthy, because there stood a Lamb right there was worthy. So he was weeping there, he said, "Oh, Glory to God." Listen at him directly when he goes to shouting. Now, but we find him here weeping because that he was so happy because that the Lamb had taken the Book for the--out of the hand of Him that set upon the throne.''<ref>REV.CHAP.5.PART.2 JEFF.IN ROJC 747-793 61-0618</ref>
:''I believe '''he was weeping for joy''' because that he had seen the whole plan of redemption was wrote in this Book here. It wasn't because there wasn't nobody worthy, because there stood a Lamb right there was worthy. So he was weeping there, he said, "Oh, Glory to God." Listen at him directly when he goes to shouting. Now, but we find him here weeping because that he was so happy because that the Lamb had taken the Book for the--out of the hand of Him that set upon the throne.''<ref>REV.CHAP.5.PART.2 JEFF.IN ROJC 747-793 61-0618</ref>


==Conclusion==
==Questions to ask yourself==
William Branham's doctrine was in total contradiction to what scripture said. He ignored the plain meaning of scripture, and as a result his theology cannot be trusted.
 
Did William Branham ignore the plain meaning of scripture?  Was William Branham's doctrine in total contradiction to what scripture says?  Why?  


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