The Lord's Day: Difference between revisions

no edit summary
No edit summary
No edit summary
Line 37: Line 37:
:''All right, '''the Sun of righteousness with healing in His wings.''' Now His countenances. '''He was a judge''', or another thing to show that he was '''over into the Lord’s day.''' You believe that? He went over into the Lord’s day and saw the Lord as a judge; not as priest, not as king, but as a judge. He is a Judge. Don’t you believe that? Bible says He’s a Judge. And here He was all dressed as the Judge, showing what He had done; what He was: what He was to the sinner, what He was to the Christian. And here He stands now with the Voice of many waters, and His countenances was like the sun shining in its strength.<ref>William Branham, 60-1204E - The Patmos Vision, para. 98, 99, 120, 156, 243</ref>
:''All right, '''the Sun of righteousness with healing in His wings.''' Now His countenances. '''He was a judge''', or another thing to show that he was '''over into the Lord’s day.''' You believe that? He went over into the Lord’s day and saw the Lord as a judge; not as priest, not as king, but as a judge. He is a Judge. Don’t you believe that? Bible says He’s a Judge. And here He was all dressed as the Judge, showing what He had done; what He was: what He was to the sinner, what He was to the Christian. And here He stands now with the Voice of many waters, and His countenances was like the sun shining in its strength.<ref>William Branham, 60-1204E - The Patmos Vision, para. 98, 99, 120, 156, 243</ref>
    
    
=What the phrase means in the original Greek=


The English possessive “the Lord’s” is not in the Greek genitive (possessive) case, but is rather an adjective coined from the noun “Lord,” and means something like “in honor of” or “pertaining to” the Lord.  By the mid-second century this word was used to distinguish Christian from Jewish devotion, thus indicating that it had already been in use for a considerable length of time. Given the significance of Sabbath observance for the earliest followers of Jesus, who were Jewish, the only possible explanation for the phenomenon of calling Sunday “the Lord’s Day” is the probability that they held a weekly remembrance of the resurrection.<ref>Gordon D. Fee, Revelation, New Covenant Commentary Series (Eugene, OR: Cascade Books, 2011), 14–15.<ref>
Some contend that ἐν τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ (“on the Lord’s day”) refers to the eschatological Day of the Lord prophesied in the OT, so that John’s vision (especially chs. 4–22) is an explanation of how this latter-day expectation will be (or is being) fulfilled. This would be an attractive idea since the focus of the book’s visions is end-time judgment. However, κυριακός is never used of the “Day of the Lord” in the LXX, NT, or early fathers.<ref>G. K. Beale, The Book of Revelation: A Commentary on the Greek Text, New International Greek Testament Commentary (Grand Rapids, MI; Carlisle, Cumbria: W.B. Eerdmans; Paternoster Press, 1999), 203.</ref>