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Question 24 (ABM) - Grounds for Divorce according to William Branham: Difference between revisions

 
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Again, these two verses are addressed to the man.  The first part of verse 31 (ignoring the exception for sexual immorality for the moment) is identical to the first portion of Luke 16:18 - whoever divorces his wife – but the end of the statement is very different.  The assumption is that, after being divorced, she will remarry.  She commits adultery BUT the guilt for the sin is her first husband’s (and not hers).  He ‘causes her’ to commit adultery: he drives her to it. Admittedly, she should not get remarried, but the greater sin—though it does not excuse her action or make the remarriage all right—is her husband’s for divorcing her in the first place.
Again, these two verses are addressed to the man.  The first part of verse 31 (ignoring the exception for sexual immorality for the moment) is identical to the first portion of Luke 16:18 - whoever divorces his wife – but the end of the statement is very different.  The assumption is that, after being divorced, she will remarry.  She commits adultery BUT the guilt for the sin is her first husband’s (and not hers).  He ‘causes her’ to commit adultery: he drives her to it. Admittedly, she should not get remarried, but the greater sin—though it does not excuse her action or make the remarriage all right—is her husband’s for divorcing her in the first place.


It is clear from Bro. Branham’s teaching on this issue that he completely misses the point of Jesus statement when he states:
It is clear from William Branham’s teaching on this issue that he completely misses the point of Jesus statement when he states:


:''See, she has got a living husband, so no man can marry her. Care what she does and who she is, she's got a living husband, there is no grounds for her at all. But, it's not, for him. "Causes her," not him. Get it? You have to make the Word run in continuity. See, nothing saying he couldn't, but she can't. See, "causes her," not him. That's exactly what the Bible says, "causes her." It is not stated against him to remarry, but "her." Why? Christ in the type.'' <ref>MARRIAGE.AND.DIVORCE_  JEFF.IN  65-0221M</ref>
:''See, she has got a living husband, so no man can marry her. Care what she does and who she is, she's got a living husband, there is no grounds for her at all. But, it's not, for him. "Causes her," not him. Get it? You have to make the Word run in continuity. See, nothing saying he couldn't, but she can't. See, "causes her," not him. That's exactly what the Bible says, "causes her." It is not stated against him to remarry, but "her." Why? Christ in the type.'' <ref>MARRIAGE.AND.DIVORCE_  JEFF.IN  65-0221M</ref>


Bro. Branham’s statement here completely ignores Mark 10:11 and Luke 16:18.  It also assumes that Matthew’s lack of speaking to the woman somehow allows a man to remarry and a woman not to remarry.  
William Branham’s statement here completely ignores Mark 10:11 and Luke 16:18.  It also assumes that Matthew’s lack of speaking to the woman somehow allows a man to remarry and a woman not to remarry.  


It doesn’t.   
It doesn’t.   
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The last part of Matthew 5:32 is basically the same as the last part of Luke 16:18
The last part of Matthew 5:32 is basically the same as the last part of Luke 16:18


Bro. Branham misinterprets this passage as follows:
William Branham misinterprets this passage as follows:


:''Jesus said in Matthew 19:9, "Whosoever putteth away his wife and marries another, except it be for the cause of fornications, commits adultery." The difference between fornications and adultery, the word could be applied either way. But to make it clear what he was talking of there, that--a woman that's unmarried cannot commit adultery, because she has no husband to commit adultery against. It's uncleanliness for her. She has to confess that to her husband before they are married if she's did that. If not and her husband finds it out later, he has a right to put her away, because she took a false vow. For the Bible said, "Be it well..." or ritual says. "Be it well known to you (I have it in mine) if any couples are joined otherwise than God's Word does allow, their marriage is not lawful. I will require and will charge you both as you'll surely answer in the day of judgment when the secrets of all hearts shall be disclosed, if either of you know any impediment why you should not be lawful joined together, do you now confess it." There you are. See?''
:''Jesus said in Matthew 19:9, "Whosoever putteth away his wife and marries another, except it be for the cause of fornications, commits adultery." The difference between fornications and adultery, the word could be applied either way. But to make it clear what he was talking of there, that--a woman that's unmarried cannot commit adultery, because she has no husband to commit adultery against. It's uncleanliness for her. She has to confess that to her husband before they are married if she's did that. If not and her husband finds it out later, he has a right to put her away, because she took a false vow. For the Bible said, "Be it well..." or ritual says. "Be it well known to you (I have it in mine) if any couples are joined otherwise than God's Word does allow, their marriage is not lawful. I will require and will charge you both as you'll surely answer in the day of judgment when the secrets of all hearts shall be disclosed, if either of you know any impediment why you should not be lawful joined together, do you now confess it." There you are. See?''
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:''So fornication is what a girl, when she lives unclean, that's fornication, 'cause she has no husband. But when she's married, and then when she lives like that, she commits adultery against her husband.''<ref>QUESTIONS.AND.ANSWERS 59-0628E</ref>
:''So fornication is what a girl, when she lives unclean, that's fornication, 'cause she has no husband. But when she's married, and then when she lives like that, she commits adultery against her husband.''<ref>QUESTIONS.AND.ANSWERS 59-0628E</ref>


Bro. Branham thinks that the KJV interpretation of the word porneia is something that refers to activity prior to marriage, which it is not.  The NIV interprets it as “except for marital unfaithfulness”; the GNT as “other than her unfaithfulness”; and the Amplified as “except on the grounds of unfaithfulness”.  His interpretation does not stand up to scrutiny if you look at the true meaning of the Greek.
William Branham thinks that the KJV interpretation of the word porneia is something that refers to activity prior to marriage, which it is not.  The NIV interprets it as “except for marital unfaithfulness”; the GNT as “other than her unfaithfulness”; and the Amplified as “except on the grounds of unfaithfulness”.  His interpretation does not stand up to scrutiny if you look at the true meaning of the Greek.


<u>Matthew 19:3-9</u>
<u>Matthew 19:3-9</u>
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BTS
BTS


=Further response from ABM=
=Further response from ABM - Women cutting their hair=


BTS,
BTS,
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BTS
BTS


=Response from ABM=
=Response from ABM re William Branham's confusing statements=


BTS,
BTS,