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Non-Biblical Doctrines: Difference between revisions
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|'''[[The Midwives of Egypt|Were the midwives of Egypt good or bad?]]''' William Branham called them | |'''[[The Midwives of Egypt|Were the midwives of Egypt good or bad?]]''' William Branham called them witches. The Bible calls them God fearing. Why the difference? | ||
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|'''[[Lilies Do Not Toil|Do lilies toil?]]''' William Branham said they do, Jesus said they don't. Why was William Branham misquoting Jesus? | |||
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|'''[[The Reason John Wept|Why did John weep in the book of Revelation?]]''' John wrote that it was because "no man was found worthy to open and to read the book." William Branham said, "It wasn't that. A man under the influence of the Holy Ghost wouldn't weep for that...I believe he was weeping for joy!" Why did he obviously change scripture to match the doctrine he wanted to preach? | |||
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|'''[[Abraham and Sarah]]'''. When The Lord told Abraham they would have a child, and Sarah laughed in the tent, then denied it to the angel, WMB said if it wasn't for Abraham, God would have struck her dead. But is this what the Bible teaches? | |||
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|'''[[Amos 3:3]]'''. William Branham's interpretation of Amos 3:3 emphasized that God did not want people to be in unity when they had a basic disagreement about some important matter. For example, he said that God could never be among the United Nations because people in different nations were too different from one another in their views. Is this really what the Bible says? | |||
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|'''[[The Sin in the Wilderness]]'''. William Branham believed that the children of Israel that died in the wilderness and did not enter the promised land were eternally lost. But is this what the Bible teaches? | |||
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